John 1:1
How misused: Cliffe repeatedly asserts that John 1:1 'crystal clearly' states the deity of Christ in a Trinitarian sense without acknowledging linguistic nuances or alternative interpretations. He implies that 'the Word' (Logos) is unequivocally referring to Christ as co-equal and co-eternal God from the outset, dismissing textual complexities and the historical development of Trinitarian doctrine. He uses it to 'prove' Jesus is God without deeper theological unpacking.
Scripture's answer: John 1:1 (Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος) states 'In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.' While affirming the Word's divine nature and association with God, the Greek phrase 'theos en ho logos' (θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος) notably lacks the definite article before 'theos' (God), which distinguishes the Word's mode of being from 'ho theos' (the Father). This grammatical nuance, widely discussed by scholars, suggests identity in nature, but not necessarily identity in person with the Father, a distinction crucial to Trinitarian theology. While it strongly indicates divinity, it does not 'crystal clearly' define the fully developed Trinitarian concept of co-equality and co-eternality in the way often presented, which required further scriptural synthesis and theological councils. The immediate context of John 1:18 clarifies that 'No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known,' showing a relationship between the Father and the Son rather than an absolute indistinguishable identity in person from the very first verse.
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Exodus 21:16
How misused: When discussing biblical slavery, Cliffe claims that Exodus 21:16 exclusively refers to 'manstealing' (kidnapping) and does not, in principle, condemn all forms of chattel slavery as practiced in the ancient world. He uses this to argue that the Bible does not promote slavery by distinguishing between illegal kidnapping and divinely sanctioned forms of involuntary servitude.
Scripture's answer: Exodus 21:16 states: 'Whoever steals a man and sells him, and anyone found in possession of him, shall be put to death.' While this verse indeed condemns 'manstealing' (kidnapping for the purpose of selling into slavery), it does not negate the existence or regulation of other forms of involuntary servitude sanctioned or tolerated within the Mosaic Law (e.g., debt slavery, war captives, indentured servitude). The Hebrew 'gonēv ish' (גֹּנֵב אִישׁ) clearly refers to stealing a person. However, asserting that this verse *exclusively* condemns only manstealing and thereby sanitizes all other forms of 'slavery' permitted in the Torah is an oversimplification. The biblical text *does* regulate various forms of servitude, which often involved forced labor and lack of freedom, and which modern definitions would classify as slavery. While ancient Israelite servitude differed from chattel slavery in the American South, it was still a system of involuntary human bondage. The biblical ideal, as evident in the Jubilee laws and the overarching call for justice and compassion (Deuteronomy 15:12-15), points towards liberation rather than perpetual enslavement, challenging any system that denies human dignity and freedom. To limit the condemnation of human bondage solely to kidnapping ignores the broader ethical implications and the prophetic trajectory of justice in Scripture.
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Philemon
How misused: Cliffe misapplies the letter to Philemon as an 'abolitionist text' advocating for the emancipation of slaves, and that William Wilberforce's efforts 'prove the Bible's inherent opposition to slavery.' He uses this to assert that the Bible is fundamentally against all forms of slavery.
Scripture's answer: Paul's letter to Philemon is an appeal concerning the runaway slave Onesimus, whom Paul sends back to his master, Philemon, asking Philemon to receive him back 'no longer as a slave but more than a slave, as a beloved brother' (Philemon 1:16). While the letter elevates the spiritual status of Onesimus and implicitly calls for a transformation in the master-slave relationship within the Christian community, it does not explicitly command Philemon to emancipate Onesimus, nor does it advocate for the systemic abolition of slavery. To call it an 'abolitionist text' in the modern sense is an anachronism. Paul operates within the social structures of his time, seeking to transform relationships from within the existing framework (1 Corinthians 7:20-24). While the principles of Christian love and brotherhood laid the groundwork for future abolitionist movements, interpreting Philemon as a direct call for legal emancipation is a misapplication of its primary intent and context. Wilberforce's motivations were certainly biblical, but his actions were an application of biblical principles to a later historical context, not a direct, explicit command found in Philemon itself.
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