Dawah Over Dunya

How misused: Used to argue that Jesus being 'the Word' only means he was spoken into existence, not that he is divine or co-eternal with God, thereby denying his deity.

Scripture's answer: John 1:1 ('In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God') unequivocally states the eternal pre-existence and divine nature of Jesus (the Word). The Greek 'Logos' (Word) here refers to an uncreated, divine being, not merely a spoken command that brings something into existence. The phrase 'the Word was God' (θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος) indicates essential deity, not just divine qualities. John 1:14 further clarifies, 'The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth,' affirming the Incarnation of this divine Word.

How misused: Cited as 'honor the Son as you honor the Father' but then dismissed as not implying divinity for Jesus, by making a false analogy to a wife's submission to her husband. This misinterprets the unique honor due to the Son as co-equal with the Father.

Scripture's answer: John 5:23 ('that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father, who sent him') demands an equal honor for Jesus as for God the Father. In biblical monotheism, honor and worship are due to God alone. To demand equal honor for Jesus is an implicit claim to co-equal divinity. The analogy to a wife's submission is a non sequitur, as biblical submission within marriage does not equate to worship or divine honor. Yeshua's role as judge is granted by the Father (John 5:22), but His inherent divinity is affirmed by the nature of the honor He commands.

How misused: Verses where Jesus states 'He can do nothing of his own accord' are cited to argue against Jesus' divinity, equating his dependence with Allah's independent omnipotence, and misinterpreting 'raising the dead at the hour' as an act exclusively reserved for Allah, thus creating a false dichotomy.

Scripture's answer: In John 5:19-30, Jesus describes His unity and perfect obedience to the Father, stating 'the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing.' This does not negate His divinity but rather affirms His co-equal divine nature and perfect submission within the Trinity. Indeed, the Father 'has granted the Son also to have life in himself' (v. 26) and 'given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of Man' (v. 27). The ability to 'give life to whom he will' (v. 21) and 'raise the dead' (v. 25) demonstrates divine power, not mere human dependence. The context emphasizes their inseparable will and shared divine power, rather than a lack of divinity for the Son.

How misused: Used to claim Jesus is 'cursed', implying a negative theological status that disproves his divinity or positive role, based on a misunderstanding of 'cursed' in the context of Christ bearing the curse of the Law for humanity's redemption.

Scripture's answer: Galatians 3:13 states, 'Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written: 'Cursed is everyone who is hung on a pole.' This verse means Jesus voluntarily took on the legal consequences of humanity's sin (the curse of the Law) upon Himself through His crucifixion, thereby redeeming us. It does not imply that Jesus was inherently cursed by God for His own actions or that He possessed a negative theological status. Rather, it highlights His sacrificial act and atonement, fulfilling the Law's demands on our behalf (Deuteronomy 21:23).

How misused: Interpreted as a blanket endorsement of all Pharisaic teachings, including the Talmud, and then used to falsely claim Jesus condoned marrying three-year-olds, thereby creating a false equivalency to justify child marriage in Islam.

Scripture's answer: In Matthew 23:2-3, Jesus instructs His disciples: 'The teachers of the law and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. So you must be careful to do everything they tell you. But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach.' This is not a blanket endorsement of all Pharisaic teaching, but an acknowledgment of their *positional authority* as interpreters of the Mosaic Law, which Jesus Himself upheld and fulfilled. It is immediately followed by a strong condemnation of their hypocrisy and burdens (v. 4). It has no bearing on child marriage, which is neither commanded nor endorsed in the Law of Moses or by Jesus, and is a complete misapplication of the text.

How misused: Misinterpreted to mean Satan is a deity equal to God, or that the Bible affirms Satan as 'God' in the absolute sense, to accuse Christianity of contradicting monotheism or of worshipping Satan, particularly when Christians refer to 'Allah' as Satan in polemical contexts.

Scripture's answer: 2 Corinthians 4:4 refers to Satan as 'the god of this world' (ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου). This is a qualitative, not an ontological, statement. It means Satan functions as a controlling influence over the 'age' or 'world system' that rejects God, blinding the minds of unbelievers to the gospel. It does not imply that Satan is an ultimate, co-equal deity or creator god. The Bible unequivocally teaches absolute monotheism and that there is only one true God, the Creator (Isaiah 45:5-6).

How misused: Cited to argue that God actively deceives people or causes them to err, rather than understanding it within the context of God's sovereign judgment and permission for delusion upon those who have already chosen rebellion and idolatry.

Scripture's answer: Ezekiel 14:9 states: 'And if the prophet is enticed to utter a prophecy, I the LORD have enticed that prophet, and I will stretch out my hand against him and destroy him from among my people Israel.' This passage must be understood in context. It refers to a false prophet who is already leading people astray with idolatry. God 'entices' in the sense that He allows or orchestrates circumstances (as part of His judgment) for the false prophet to reveal their true corrupt nature, confirming their deception upon themselves and those who follow them, rather than God being the direct author of deception for the righteous. It is a judgment upon existing rebellion, not an act of deceiving the innocent.

How misused: Cited to argue that God actively sends delusion, implying God is the source of deception itself, rather than understanding it as God's righteous judgment upon those who have rejected the truth and chosen to believe lies.

Scripture's answer: 2 Thessalonians 2:11 states: 'Therefore God sends them a strong delusion, so that they may believe what is false.' This is a judicial act of God upon those who 'refused to love the truth and so be saved' (v. 10). It is not God deceiving the innocent, but God confirming people in the path they have chosen by giving them over to the consequences of their rejection of truth. It is a judgment against deliberate unbelief, not an arbitrary act of deception. God is holy and cannot be the author of evil or lies (Titus 1:2, James 1:13).