Mark 13:32 / Matthew 24:36
How misused: The speaker repeatedly interprets Jesus' statement 'no one knows... not even the Son... but the Father only' as referring to *declarative* knowledge (Jesus knows but chooses not to declare it) rather than *cognitive* knowledge (Jesus genuinely does not know during his incarnate state). This distorts the plain meaning of the text to uphold a specific view of Jesus' omniscience during the incarnation.
Scripture's answer: The text clearly states Jesus 'does not know' the hour, implying a genuine cognitive limitation willingly taken on during his incarnation (kenosis, Philippians 2:6-8). To interpret 'knows' as merely 'declares' imposes an external theological framework onto the plain meaning of the words, rather than allowing the text to speak for itself regarding Christ's human experience and limitations.
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John 17:3
How misused: The speaker occasionally misapplies John 17:3 ('that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent') to suggest it *disproves* the deity of Christ and the Trinity, framing it as if Jesus is distinguishing Himself from the 'only true God.' This is a misunderstanding of the verse, which highlights the Father's uniqueness as the source of divinity while not denying the Son's shared divinity.
Scripture's answer: John 17:3, when read in context, emphasizes the Father as the *source* of divinity (the 'only true God') and Jesus as His divine agent, without denying Jesus' own divinity. Jesus Himself claims equality with the Father elsewhere (John 10:30, John 14:9), and the New Testament consistently affirms His deity. The verse points to the Father's ultimate authority and priority within the Trinitarian relationship, not the Son's non-divinity.
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Matthew 28:19
How misused: The speaker, while defending the Trinitarian formula, sometimes implicitly or explicitly asserts the absolute unassailability of Matthew 28:19's traditional 'Father, Son, and Holy Spirit' formula, ignoring historical and textual critical discussions that point to early 'Jesus' name only' baptismal practices or alternative manuscript traditions. While defending the formula is valid, dismissing the complexities around the text's transmission or historical practices is an oversimplification.
Scripture's answer: While Matthew 28:19 is a key text for Trinitarian baptism, some early Christian practices and patristic citations suggest 'in Jesus' name' baptism was also common. Textual criticism indicates some complexity in the transmission of this verse. However, the core Trinitarian *concept* remains firmly established throughout the New Testament, regardless of the precise wording of this particular command. The issue is not the *doctrine* but the *claim of absolute textual uniformity* without acknowledging scholarship.
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