John 14:6
How misused: Repeatedly misinterpreted to argue that Jesus, by stating he is 'the way to the Father,' cannot logically be the Father or God himself. This creates a false dichotomy, implying that a mediator cannot share the nature of the one he mediates for, thereby denying Yeshua's divinity and unique role as both God and man.
Scripture's answer: Yeshua's statement 'I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me' (John 14:6) emphasizes his exclusive mediatorial role, not a separation of his nature from the Father. As the incarnate Son, he is both the path and God Himself, making access to the Father possible through His divine-human person. This is consistent with other passages affirming His divinity and unity with the Father (John 1:1, 10:30, 20:28).
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John 10:30
How misused: Misinterpreted to mean Jesus's statement 'I and the Father are one' refers only to unity of purpose or agreement, similar to how disciples can be 'one' with Him and the Father (John 17:21-22), thereby denying Yeshua's co-equality and co-divinity with the Father. The speaker often attempts to contextualize it with Psalm 82:6, where judges are called 'gods,' as if to diminish Yeshua's claim.
Scripture's answer: In John 10:30, Yeshua's declaration 'I and the Father are one' was clearly understood by the Jews present as a claim to divinity, leading them to accuse Him of blasphemy and attempt to stone Him (John 10:31-33). They correctly perceived it as a claim to be 'God' (v.33). His subsequent reference to Psalm 82:6 serves to argue from a lesser to a greater, implying that if humans can be called 'gods' due to a divine commission, how much more can the one whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world be called 'Son of God' without blasphemy, thereby affirming, not denying, His unique divine identity.
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Ezekiel 18:20
How misused: Cited to argue against substitutionary atonement, asserting that 'the soul who sins shall die' proves that each individual is solely responsible for their own sins, and therefore vicarious atonement (like Yeshua's sacrifice) is unjust and unnecessary. This ignores the broader biblical narrative of atonement.
Scripture's answer: Ezekiel 18:20 emphasizes individual moral responsibility against the prevailing proverb that children suffer for their parents' sins. It does not negate the need or possibility of substitutionary atonement. The entire Tanakh sacrificial system demonstrates God's provision for vicarious atonement (Leviticus 17:11), culminating in the Mashiach's ultimate sacrifice, where 'the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all' (Isaiah 53:6). Yeshua's atonement fulfills the requirements of God's justice by paying the penalty for sin on behalf of humanity (Romans 3:23-26).
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Matthew 19:9 / Matthew 5:32
How misused: Misrepresented to claim that Christian teaching on divorce only permits it for adultery, but then forbids remarriage for the innocent party, leading to perpetual celibacy or adultery. This is used to portray Christian marriage doctrine as impractical or harsh compared to Islam's.
Scripture's answer: Yeshua's teachings in Matthew 19:9 and Matthew 5:32 (and 1 Corinthians 7:15) allow for divorce in cases of sexual immorality ('porneia') or desertion by an unbelieving spouse. While the emphasis is on the sanctity of marriage, biblical scholars generally understand these 'exceptions clauses' to permit remarriage for the innocent party, although interpretations vary. The teaching aims to uphold the sanctity of marriage while acknowledging the brokenness introduced by sin, not to trap innocent individuals in perpetual celibacy or forced adultery.
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Deuteronomy 18:22
How misused: Used as the sole criterion to judge the prophethood of Joseph Smith, claiming his failed prophecies (e.g., about the US government's overthrow) disqualify him. While this verse is a valid test for false prophets, its application is selective and intended to dismiss Mormonism without engaging its theology beyond this single criterion, while implicitly exempting Muhammad from similar scrutiny for alleged 'fulfilled prophecies' in the Quran/Hadith (e.g., greening of Arabia, tall buildings).
Scripture's answer: Deuteronomy 18:22 provides a clear test for a prophet: if what he says in the name of the Lord does not come to pass, then the Lord has not spoken. This is a foundational principle for discerning true prophets. While it correctly applies to Joseph Smith's demonstrable failed prophecies, consistency demands that similar scrutiny be applied to all claims of prophethood, including those of Muhammad, whose 'prophecies' are often generalized, anachronistic, or reinterpreted to fit events.
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Genesis 3:16
How misused: Misinterpreted to claim that the Bible states pregnancy is a 'punishment' for Eve's sin, rather than acknowledging that increased pain in childbirth is a consequence of the Fall. This is used to paint biblical teaching as misogynistic.
Scripture's answer: Genesis 3:16 describes the consequences of the Fall, including 'pain in childbearing.' This is presented as a painful aspect of fallen humanity, not a 'punishment' of pregnancy itself. Pregnancy and childbirth are otherwise presented as blessings in Scripture (Psalm 127:3). The passage highlights the brokenness introduced by sin into human experience, including the natural processes of life, not a condemnation of childbearing itself.
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1 Corinthians 11:3 / 1 Timothy 2:11-15
How misused: Cited to argue that biblical passages on male headship and gender roles ('man is the head of woman,' 'woman should learn in quietness... not to have authority over a man') are '10 times more severe' than Islamic teachings on women's testimony or inheritance, and inherently promote female subordination and inequality. This selective reading ignores the broader context of mutual respect and dignity taught in Scripture.
Scripture's answer: While Paul addresses specific roles and order within the church and family, passages like 1 Corinthians 11:3 and 1 Timothy 2:11-15 must be understood in light of the overarching biblical principles of mutual submission (Ephesians 5:21), the equal spiritual value and dignity of men and women before God (Galatians 3:28), and the call for men to love their wives sacrificially (Ephesians 5:25). These passages speak to order and function, not inherent inferiority or 'severe' subjugation. They aim to foster harmonious relationships that reflect God's design, not to oppress women.
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Various NT passages where Jesus uses strong language (e.g., 'brood of vipers,' turning tables) or appears to be less than 'perfectly mild'
How misused: Cited as 'evidence' that Jesus was not sinless, claiming he 'sinned by cursing' or showing anger, 'lied' about going to Passover, or 'insulted' a Canaanite woman by calling her a 'dog.' This misinterprets righteous indignation or testing as sin.
Scripture's answer: Yeshua's actions and words, though sometimes strong, were always righteous and without sin (Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 2:22). His anger at the money changers was righteous indignation against the desecration of God's house (John 2:13-17). His seemingly harsh words to the Canaanite woman were a test of her faith, which she passed, leading to her daughter's healing (Matthew 15:21-28). His statements about going or not going to the Passover (John 7:8-10) reflect His divine timing and strategic movement, not deception. Sin is a transgression of God's law, and Yeshua, as the Son of God, perfectly upheld God's righteous standard in thought, word, and deed.
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